USMLE Forum Archives - USMLE Step 3 - gyn
gyn
bingousmle - 07-09-10 14:37
A 61-year-old postmenopausal woman, who has been on continuous combined hormone
replacement therapy for 5 years, presents to your office complaining of vaginal bleeding.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?
(A) pap smear
(B) endocervical curettage (ECC)
(C) pelvic ultrasound
(D) endometrial biopsy
(E) dilation and curettage
bingousmle - 07-09-10 14:37
A 61-year-old postmenopausal woman, who has been on continuous combined hormone
replacement therapy for 5 years, presents to your office complaining of vaginal bleeding.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?
(A) pap smear
(B) endocervical curettage (ECC)
(C) pelvic ultrasound
(D) endometrial biopsy
(E) dilation and curettage
The correct answer and explanation will be available after you answer.
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#5
Re: gyn babbu5508 - 07-13-10 10:10 My answer is: d.
The test is done to find the cause of:
Abnormal menstrual periods
Bleeding after menopause
Bleeding from taking hormone therapy medications
Thickened uterine lining seen on ultrasound
#7
Re: gyn 1811166 - 07-16-10 15:21 
posted by 1811166 on 07-16-10 15:14
[ANSWER d]
[ANSWER d]
Vaginal bleeding in postmenopausal women >60 y/o is cancer until proven otherwise and requires an endometrial biopsy.
#13
Re: gyn mockingbird - 06-30-11 12:51 My answer is: d.
The patient may have endometrial carcinoma because of prolonged exposure to Hormone Replacement Therapy.
Endometrial biopsy is the most appropriate next step.
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